(This post is part of a series of short studies in Mark's Gospel)
What is “the blasphemy of the Holy Spirit” and why did Jesus say it was the “unforgiveable sin?” Can we commit “the unforgivable sin” today? First, spanning out and considering a larger context, this incident (3:19-30) is preceded by Jesus’ confirmation that He is indeed claiming to be God, who alone can forgive sins, in direct response to a charge of blasphemy from the Scribes—if only at this juncture in their unexpressed thoughts (2:1-12). Now we see him charging them with blasphemy for openly ascribing the works of God to the works of demons, or “Satan” (the prince of evil spirits, or the adversary). So in Mark’s chronology we see Jesus’ identity progressively revealed, and along with this revelation we see the Jewish leaders becoming increasingly bolder in their accusations against him, and in their denial of his deity—which is their rejection of God’s revelation of His salvation to humankind in Christ.[1] Specifically to the question of why Jesus defines blasphemy as the “unforgiveable sin,” it is important to identify from the text what that “blasphemy” is. And we do have the definitive statement that Jesus is speaking against the “blasphemy” of those who had said, “he has an unclean spirit” (3:30). In other words, this unforgivable blasphemy—committed in a specific time and place by a specific group of people--was the denial of Jesus’ deity, and not simply by suggesting he was a mere man rather than “the Son of Man,” but with the added force of claiming the works he performed to prove his identity were in fact works he performed by the power of “Satan.” I have occasionally heard people wonder, “what if I have committed the unforgivable sin?” It is important that we remember the time and place context of this story. Again, Jesus was speaking to a specific group of people, who had committed a specific offense—that of denying that His works, done physically in their presence, were the works of God, and ascribing those works instead to the works of “Satan.” This is not a position any of us are in today, historically speaking. Beyond this, our theology, and specifically our soteriology,[2] will dictate our response to someone who fears they may be “unforgivable.” When our faith in the power of the cross assures us that “there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ” (cf. Romans 8:1) we can comfort one another with this “good news.” [1] First century Jews would have indeed understood from their prophets that Israel’s Savior would be none other than God. In fact, it is not possible to call Jesus “Savior” without also calling him “God” (cf. Isaiah 43:3; 45:21; Hosea 13:4). [2] “Soteriology” refers to the doctrine of salvation, or our belief about how one becomes saved, and would also encompass whether we believe one could ever “lose salvation.”
8 Comments
8/6/2012 04:11:49 am
So if the unpardonable sin cannot be committed today, then what was the "age to come" to which Jesus had reference when he said that such sin wouldn't be forgiven in that age OR the one to come?
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Tami Jelinek
8/6/2012 05:40:11 am
Hi Tony. My point in the post (a very short reflection on the passage, and certainly not an exhaustive study) was simply that there was a specific context to Jesus' words, and what he was calling the "blasphemy" that would not be forgiven. As I wrote: "Jesus was speaking to a specific group of people, who had committed a specific offense—that of denying that His works, done physically in their presence, were the works of God, and ascribing those works instead to the works of 'Satan.'" I think it is clear from the context that there were those in the first century who would (and will) never be forgiven. But again, to the point I made in the post, there is "now no condemnation" for those in Christ. So for a believer who has been permanently cleansed of all unrighteousness to be taught it is possible for her to "commit the unforgivable sin" would be paramount to a denial of the power of the cross and contradictory to the Gospel.
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Jimmy Higgins
8/6/2012 05:33:17 am
Then are you saying that denying the word of God was how they blasphemed the Holy Spirit?
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Tami Jelinek
8/6/2012 05:46:57 am
Hi Jimmy. They blasphemed the Holy Spirit, by which Jesus did the works in their presence which witnessed His deity, by claiming He did these works by the power of "Satan," or a "devil." (And again, that is not a context any of us are in today.)
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Jimmy
8/8/2012 11:02:18 am
I was unaware that Jesus did the works, (miracles) he did by the power of the Holy Spirit. Please enlighten me if time permits.
Tami Jelinek
8/9/2012 11:48:39 pm
Jimmy, in this instance, it is strongly and logically implied by the context as Jesus makes a direct association between their accusation that "he has an unclean spirit" (by which he was performing the miracles) and "blasphemy against the Holy Spirit."
Robert Burkholder
8/6/2012 02:25:00 pm
Hi Tami. Allow me to refer back to verse 22; ¶ and the scribes who are from Jerusalem having come down, said—‘He hath Beelzeboul,’ and—‘By the ruler of the demons he doth cast out the demons.’
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About Me:
I have been married to my loving husband Keith for 26 years. We have three beautiful and brilliant children, ages 24, 22 and 20. Nothing cheers my heart more than having them all at home, yet nothing is more satisfying to my mind than watching them grow from afar. My personal passion is theology: the knowledge and experience of the Truth and Mercy found only in the person and work of Jesus Christ, and displayed in the lives and communion of His people. My husband and I love to travel, and because our children are often out and about in the world, we get lots of opportunities to see it! And we also love to fill our home with friends who love us, and love our wine collection. Archives
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